In the previous post (here)
I provided some relevant background for discussing a forthcoming paper in Cognition by Cole, Hermon and Yanti
(CHY) that argues against a UG interpretation of the Binding Theory (BT), and,
by extension, against most PoS forms of reasoning to UG. Here we get into some
details. There is one more post to follow. Told you this was going to be
involved.
The paper argues that there are languages where the
relatively clean morphological distinctions found in English between anaphors
and pronominals is considerably less clear. Thus, there are some languages
where some “semantically dependent expressions” (SDE, I return in a moment to
explicate this notion) are completely exempt from BT and that there are many
where there is no clear morphological distinction between reflexives and
pronouns (as their appears to be in English). None of this is news. In fact, as
CHY notes, and has been known for quite a while even to typological illiterates
like me, there are even languages where the morphological distinction between
pronominals and anaphors is hard to discern.[1]
In other words, there are languages where the functional surface vocabulary (FSV) relevant for binding does not
cleanly reflect the underlying categories relevant for BT. Or, to put this
another way, it’s easier to study BT in some languages than in others precisely
because in some languages the overt FSV more clearly marks the underlying
grammatical distinctions than in other languages. Isn’t this one of the reasons
for doing comparative syntax? To find those languages where the system of
interest is easiest to study? Does it matter that in some languages the system of interest is muddied by a lousy
functional inventory? Not that I can see.[2]
However, CHY’s main argument is that this is a problem for
BT and that it shows that UG is not key to understanding binding phenomena and
that PoS problems do not support nativist conclusions in the domain of binding.
Here’s how CHY puts it (p.3):
UG constitutes a general solution
to the problem of the poverty of the stimulus, and would be expected to provide
the solution to this dilemma in the realm of Binding, as well as other areas of
syntax. If, however, Binding is not determined by UG, and, hence, must be
learned by the language learner (as we claim below is in fact the case) then
Binding must be learnable pace a priori claims to the contrary. For this
reason, Binding constitutes a good test case for the claim that the facts of
syntax generally cannot be accounted for without making the assumption that
much of our knowledge of syntax is innate (i.e. determined by UG).
So the aim of CHY is to argue that BT facts can do without a
UGish BT. However, what CHY actually shows is that it is often hard to fix
which overt morphemes/expressions (if any) fall under which parts of BT, i.e.
to fix the FSVs of a given language’s G. Thus, the fact that BT does not tell
us how to categorize overt morphemes wrt binding categories is taken by CHY to
show that a UG BT cannot play a part in solving PoS problems in the domain of
binding. In other words, CHY argues that because BT is not by itself a full theory of acquisition, (in particular does not
provide a general account of fixing FSV) then it does nothing at all. And this
is a very poor argument against UG.
Let me be clear exactly what my criticism of CHY is: nowhere
does CHY outline just what the PoS problem in the domain of binding is (as I
did in the previous post). It doesn’t discuss how facts like (3) in the post here,
could be learned purely on the basis of PLD. Nor does CHY argue that the
binding principles would not be useful in categorizing morphemes. The CHY
argument is entirely based on the observation that the BT categories are often
opaque (i.e. that the mapping from overt FSVs to BT relevant categories is
often unclear).[3]
However, as noted above, this cannot be an argument against the UG nature of BT
because the claim that BT is part of UG never
assumed that it could solve this problem (all by itself, though it almost
surely contributes towards solving it). And a good thing too for we know that whatever is in UG it had
better not be a specification of which language particular morphemes are
subject to BT-A, B or C. If anything is learned, it’s this. So, the CHY conclusions do not, as a matter of logic, argue against the
claim that BT is part of FL/UG. Let’s consider some further details.
The CHY argument comes in three parts. Part one is the
observation that though many languages have a BT functional vocabulary that
clearly separates BT anaphors from BT pronominals (see CHY section 2), this is
not universally true.[4]
In section 3 CHY notes that there are languages (a version of Javanese) with BT
exempt anaphors, expressions that are anaphoric (in one sense) but do not fall
under BT at all. CHY takes this to be problematic. In particular, CHY claims
that the existence of BT exempt anaphors (p. 7):
…constitutes a serious challenge
for UG-based approaches to Binding. The presence in a language of a form that
is used anaphorically but which is exempt from the Binding requirements of UG
would impose a considerable burden on the child acquiring the language…The
existence of UG sanctioned categories for anaphora simplifies learning only if
all anaphoric elements (in the non technical sense of “anaphoric” that includes
both pronouns and reflexives) are subject to UG principles. Thus, in the
context of a system containing a mixture of UG compliant and UG exempt
elements, UG principles do not provide a solution to the poverty of stimulus
problem. At the least, the distinction between exempt and non- exempt forms
must be learned from experience…and it is doubtful that the data is
sufficiently structured to make this distinction learnable on the basis of the
distributional data that are available to the child.
What’s the problem? Not all forms that are “anaphoric” in the
“non-technical sense” (i.e. they are semantic but not syntactic dependents) are
anaphoric in the BT sense (i.e. subject to BT-A) and, CHY claims, there is no PLD that can help the PLD figure out
if an expression belongs in one category or another. Let’s consider these
claims much more closely, for they come close to inviting a form of magical
thinking.
First, what is the “non-technical sense” of anaphoric?
Linguists have two senses of “anaphoric.” The first is “semantic.” An
expression is an anaphoric dependent of another expression if its
interpretation presupposes/requires/relies on the interpretation of another.
This is what I meant by SDEs above. English contains expressions like this. For
example, ‘the others’ is an expression that has no interpretation sans a
semantic antecedent (i.e. it must
have a semantic antecedent). However, it is not subject to BT-A as it can have
a non sentence internal antecedent. In fact, all non-deictic pronouns (e.g.
cataphoric pronouns) are another example.
(4) a.
Three of the men are wearing tuxedos. The others are sporting jeans.
b.
John ate an ice cream. Mary then kissed him.
In (4a), the others
depends for its interpretation on three
of the men in the previous sentence, as does him on John in (4b).
These, then are semantically anaphoric, but BT-A exempt. Are these then a
problem for a UG account of BT-A? Only if
categorizing them as exempt from BT-A is problematic. So is it? Is there no
available positive PLD that might inform the LAD that despite appearances,
these expressions are not subject to BT-A (i.e. that despite being semantic
anaphors they are not syntactic anaphors)? Well, how about the data in (4). Are
these too exotic to be considered part of the PLD? Not from where I sit. Of course,
I could be wrong, but it is certainly not “doubtful” that such data might be available to the LAD. In fact,
I would go further: cross sentential dependencies of the sort in (4) are almost
certainly part of the PLD. [5]
Is Javanese any different? Maybe, but as CHY notes (p. 6)
the BT exempt anaphor it discusses can have discourse antecedents, in contrast
to the BT-A forms that cannot. But this then is exactly the kind of evidence
that would advise the LAD against categorizing them as syntactically anaphoric
(i.e. subject to BT-A). If so, there is no PoS problem as regards the
categorization of these overt expressions into more abstract syntactic
categories (i.e. treating them (or not) as FSVs for the abstract grammatical category
BT-anaphor).
Conclusion: CHY’s argument here fails. It is certainly right
in concluding that the world would be a better place for the LAD if semantic
anaphora were an infallible indicator of syntactic anaphora. A world where
visible diagnostics are perfect indicators of underlying structure is a nice
place (of course, this is no less true for measles and quarks than for BT-A
anaphors). But, this does not mean
that a world where the two pull apart (i.e. our own) implies that the
distinction cannot be acquired on the basis of PLD. It all depends on the PLD
and the learner, and CHY does not consider its own cited data in concluding
that the PLD is sadly lacking. Is cross-sentential “anaphora” that exotic in
the PLD that the LAD would never have access to it? Maybe, but I would like a
lot more than simple assertion to that effect before concluding that it is so.
In fact, we can go further. CHY must assume that this categorization can be fixed on the basis of
PLD (contrary to their apparent claim to the contrary). Why so? CHY argues that
distinguishing BT-A from BT-A-exempt FSVs is not based on innate features of
the LAD. That, in fact, is its main point (which, btw, must be correct given
the obvious variation in surface forms). But if it’s not fixed via FL/UG then
it must be learned. But to be learned there needs to be evidence that the LAD
can use to learn it. Thus, there must
be evidence in the PLD relevant to fixing the categorization. I mention this as
CHY appears to deny this. Specifically CHY asserts (p. 7):
At the least, the distinction
between exempt and non- exempt forms must be learned from experience…and it is
doubtful that the data is sufficiently structured to make this distinction
learnable on the basis of the distributional data that are available to the
child
But as a matter of logic, this pair of claims is close to
contradictory (That’s being weaselish. IMO it is a contradiction). If the categorization is learned, then the PLD
must be “sufficiently structured” to allow it to be learned. And if the PLD is
not “sufficiently structured” to allow it to be learned, then it must be
innately determined. There is no third
alternative. There is no learning
fairy that fits neatly between these possibilities.[6]
Luckily, relevant data appears to be plausibly accessible, and so there is no
clear PoS problem as regards binning potential “anaphoric” FSVs into different
BT relevant categories.
Last point: recall, that even where it very hard to fix BT
exemption on the basis of PLD it would not argue against the classical BT being
part of UG. Why? Because CHY does not
address how BT-A compliant FSVs acquire all of their distributional properties?
In specific, CHY does not address how native speakers acquire competence wrt
the data in (3) (see previous post). Recall that this is the PoS problem that
BT was developed to address. And in this case, as we outlined in the previous
post, there is a clear PoS problem. Thus, the LAD cannot inductively acquire
knowledge of facts like (3) (in earlier post) as there is no relevant data in
the PLD for fixing this knowledge. This argument stands regardless of how the
problems with BT-A exempt expressions is resolves. In short, it is a very odd criticism of any
theory that because it (BT in this case) does not solve a problem that it was
never intended to address that it also does not solve the problem that it was
constructed to address. And, to further conclude, that because some other
theory (not yet provided I may add) solves a problem BT was not constructed to
address that the same solution obviously solves the problem that BT did
address.
Conclusion: this argument comes nowhere close to showing
anything about the UG status of BT. And, for the record, I don’t believe that
CHY has shown that categorizing FSVs as BT exempt cannot be inferred from a
judicious use of the PLD (and, as I noted above, CHY can’t really assume this
either).[7]
The next and last post addresses CHY’s second argument.
[1]
The most well-known cases involve languages with so called “long distance
anaphors.” Are these really anaphors or just bound pronouns? What’s the
difference? Are they both or neither? Tough questions. But does linguistic theory need to provide strict answers?
Or does it only need to provide ways of classifying things to the degree that
they can be so classified? Can you spot the rhetorical question?
[2]
Nor is looking for the easiest window into the mechanism limited to linguists.
Ask your favorite neuroscientist about squid axons sometime and see why they
were a research favorite for such a long time.
[3]
For example, on p 9 CHY states:
…the division of anaphora
into reflexives and pronouns cannot be simply a matter of compliance with UG
principles…[this] suggest strongly that the pattern modeled in Binding Theory
is not primarily due to the interaction among principles of UG…
This suggests that CHY (wrongly) understands BT as
aiming to explain how FSV gets mapped into BT categories. And CHY is right. BT
does not do this. But it does other things, like explain the pattern in (3),
which is not attested in the PLD.
[4]
Oddly, IMO, CHY group English and Chinese together as well-behaved languages
wrt BT. However, if English is the BT poster child (which it really shouldn’t
be, see below) then Chinese makes things less transparent. So, for many
speakers, ‘ziji’ can serve both as the overt form of the reflexive and of the
long distance anaphor. True, ‘ta ziji’ distributes much like ‘himself,’ but
Chinese has a simple ‘self’ form that English does not have and this might well
make the categorization problem in Chinese harder than it is in English, at
least for the canonical data. Of course, not even English is that well behaved
as the well-known facts about picture NPs indicates.
[5]
JL, my friendly local acquisitionist, tells me that I am correct in thinking
that such data are available in the PLD.
[6]
There is a third option, but it is irrelevant to CHY’s concerns. It could be
that some feature is not specified by PLD or intrinsically fixed by LAD. In
such a case, the “parameter” could be random in the population (see Han, Lidz
and Musolino LI (2007) for a worked out example in Korean “dialects”). However,
even in this case, there is an innate learning principle at work: if no data
relevant to P then flip a coin and set P among UG available options. As I
noted, this possibility is not relevant for the CHY argument.
[7]
CHY argue against the hypothesis that the BT exempt anaphor is ambiguously
either a local anaphor or a pronoun depending on context. I sort of liked this
proposal. CHY argues against it. It argues instead that the exempt anaphor is
under-specified wrt being an anaphor and a pronominal. CHY proposes that this
under-specification allows such anaphors to be simultaneously interpreted anaphors and pronouns (as opposed to
being one or the other in any given context). The argument against this
involves strict vs sloppy readings under ellipsis. CHY assumes that BT-A
anaphors only license sloppy readings under ellipsis. It further notes that the
BT exempt anaphor in Javanese it discusses allows strict readings even when the
anaphor in the ellipsis licensing antecedent would be locally bound (i.e. even
when the ambiguity thesis should treat the relevant structure as one of
unambiguous BT-A binding).
The form of this argument is fine (or sorta fine: it
relies on an ad hoc stipulation that
expressions that are underdetermined wrt anaphor and pronominal features is
simultaneously both anaphoric and pronominal semantically. So far as I know,
this finely-tuned assumption does not follow from anything else about binding
or under-specification, and so is ad hoc.).
However the premise seems to me empirically ill founded. Assume, as CHY does,
that English is well behaved wrt BT-A then we predict that reflexive binding
should never license strict readings under ellipsis in English. However this is
false (or there is some challenging counter-evidence). One standard case where
the strict reading is acceptable is in (i):
(i)
John1 defended himself1
more competently than his lawyer did (defend him1)
In (i) the “defend John” reading is fine. For me,
ditto for sentences like (ii) and (iii).
(ii)
John1 defended himself1
ably in court. His1 lawyers did not (defend him1 ably)
(iii)
John1 admires himself1
greatly. Nobody else does (admire him1).
Thus, the diagnostic tool CHY uses to argue against
the ambiguity thesis is not correct in general as paradigmatic reflexive
antecedents can license strict readings in ellipsis sites.
Why? Well this
requires some theory of ellipsis (which CHY does not provide). The technical
issue of relevance will be what licenses ellipsis. One standard theory sees
ellipsis as deletion under identity. What are the relevant identity parameters?
Say that morpho-phonological identity is one such, then the fact that the same
FSV in Javanese is ambiguous between a reflexive and a pronoun could allow the
strict reading to be readily available (the “reflexive” antecedent would be
morpho-phonologically identical to the “pronominal” in the ellipsis site). The
expression in the ellipsis site interpreted as a pronoun would be
morphologically identical to the expression in the antecedent clause with the
expression interpreted as a reflexive. It is well known that such conditions
are grammatically relevant (e.g. ATB and Parasitic Gap constructions often
require morphological case identity to be licit).
Last
point: it is worth observing that the strict/sloppy dichotomy CHY uses as a
diagnostic is not part of BT. In fact, BT is mum concerning these matters. It
is a strictly empirical question, which CHY argues one way. My point is not
that CHY is wrong, but that the premise is dubious and this leaves the
ambiguity hypothesis alive and kicking.
Another similar case of what Norbert calls a semantically-dependent element (SDE) not being subject to BT-A or BT-B is epithets, which are subject to – of all things – BT-C:
ReplyDelete(1) John[i]'s mother thinks that Mary should support the idiot[i].
(2) *John[i] thinks that Mary should support the idiot[i].
Again, this echoes a point Norbert was making (unless I misunderstood it): the mapping between "is/isn't a semantic dependent" and "is/isn't subject to particular binding condition X" is hardly transparent. This is not news, not even to people who only look at English (not that I would ever support such conduct...).